Position after 40... Nxd5

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A nice shot! Ok, let's review - 39 Re2 seems like a mistake. 39 ... Nxd5 in reply , utilizing the pin on the c-pawn, would have been a terrible idea because White had 40 Qe5, unpinning the c-pawn and hitting the rook on b8 at the same time. So the point of 39 ... a4 was that after 40 bxa4, which was probably almost forced, 40 ... Nxd5 now works as 41 Qe5 is met by 41 ... Rb1 threatening mate. I am still not sure what happens then after 42 h4 as 42 ... Qg1+ 43 Kh3 Nf6 is answered by 44 Rd2.
>Dear GM Rohde,

I think that Black has a better line starting with 40 ... h4! which forces Black to answer with 41 gxh4 when Rb4 looks strong. What do you think?

Cheers,

Michael Phipps

Michael,

40 ... h4 (in Shaked - deFirmian, game 1) certainly is to be considered, but I think after 41 gxh4, White is the one who has benefitted from the insertion of this move pair. For example, now 41 ... Nxd5 would be totally unsound as after 42 Qe5, 42 ... Rb1 would not threaten mate. After 40 ... h4 41 gxh4, 41 ... Rb4 is no better now than it would have been on Black's fortieth, and White can answer with 42 Rc2 (but not 42 Rb2 Nxd5) and if 42 ... Rb1, then 43 Rc1. I still like my suggestion 40 ... Rb1. Interestingly, deFirmian's 40 ... Nxd5 was a brilliant move but one which should have lost in strange fashion - 41 Qe5 Rb1 42 h4 Qg1+ (42 ... Qxc4 43 Qd6+ Kg8 44 Rxe4) 43 Kh3 Nf6 and now Shaked's 44 Bxe4? Nxe4 is just a draw, but 44 Rd2!! should win. One bizarre variation then is 44 ... Rd1? 45 Qd6+ Kg8 46 Rxd1 Ng4??! with the idea of a perpetual after 47 Rxg1 Nf2+, but White has 47 Qd8+ Kh7 48 Bxe4+, winning.

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